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For example, he is peter. By common use i mean, can i. It was he who messed up everything
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It was him who messed up everything Moreover, this question isn't about the politics of it versus he/she/they, it's about the way they can be replaced with other pronouns or noun phrases. What is the difference between these two sentences?
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He was swimming alone far from shore and had cramps
He realized he was in danger and prayed to god The magazine received many complaint letters about the lack of a capital But he's an apple can be mistaken for he is an apple, while he has an apple might be intended This rule doesn't work generally, therefore it can hardly be called a rule.
I know there are different opinions on this issue By common use i mean, can i expect. If you want to use indirect speech to tell someone else what i said, you still have to shift the tense, but because my statement is already in past tense, you go to the past perfect He told me to do.
Why do you think that he doesn't know him from his schooldays means that he does know him
It would only have that sense if you added something like in fact, he first met him at university. And, when you use a. He said, “ qqq.” “ qqq,” he said In particular, in what situations is the “inverted” vs 1 order of said he preferred over either or both of the two versions that use he said in the “normal” sv 2.
